UPSC Prelims 2023 Questions part 2 | MSGP E Books | Solved PYQs

International Relations UPSC Prelims 2023 Questions with Solutions

46. Map: Economic Corridors

With reference to India's projects on connectivity, consider the following statements:
1. East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat.
2. Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar.
3. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China.
How many of the above statements are correct? 
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: D

East-West corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project: 

• Its terminals are Silcher in Assam and Porbandar in Gujarat 

India-Myanmar-Thailand (IMT) Trilateral Highway: 

• It starts from India and goes to Thailand via Myanmar, linking Moreh (India) -Bagan (Myanmar) -Mae Sot (Thailand).
• Trilateral Highway is still under construction, its contribution to economic growth and development not yet reached potential.
• Proposed extension of Trilateral Highway to Lao PDR, Cambodia, and Viet Nam

Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor (BCIM) Corridor: 

• Proposed connectivity project to enhance economic cooperation and trade between Bangladesh, China, India, and Myanmar.
• BCIM Corridor expected to run from Kunming in China, through Myanmar and Bangladesh, reaching Kolkata in India.

47. Map: Ukraine

Consider the following countries:
1. Bulgaria 
2. Czech Republic
3. Hungary
4. Latvia
5. Lithuania 
6. Romania 
How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine? 
(a) Only two
(b) Only three 
(c) Only four 
(d) Only five

Answer: A

Explanation:

• Ukraine does not share borders with Bulgaria, Czech Republic, Latvia, and Lithuania.
• Option (a) is the correct answer.

Ukraine's geographical borders

• Belarus to the north.
• Russia to the east.
• Sea of Azov and Black Sea to the south.
• Moldova and Romania to the southwest.
• Hungary, Slovakia, and Poland to the west.
• Kerch Strait: It separates Ukraine from Russia. It connects the Sea of Azov to the Black Sea.

48. Map Disputed Regions

Consider the following pairs: 
Regions often Reason for being in news.
1. North Kivu and Ituri: War between Armenia and Azerbaijan
2. Nagorno-Karabakh: Insurgency in Mozambique 
3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia: Dispute between Israel and Lebanon
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only Two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: D

North Kivu and Ituri

North Kivu and Ituri: War between Armenia and Azerbaijan - This pair is not correctly matched. 

• North Kivu and Ituri are regions in the Democratic Republic of the Congo, and they have been in the news mainly due to conflicts involving various armed groups and militias in the region.
• Violence and conflict in eastern DRC have escalated in these regions since February 2023.

Nagorno-Karabakh

Nagorno-Karabakh: Insurgency in Mozambique - This pair is not correctly matched. 

• Nagorno-Karabakh, also known as Artsakh, is a mountainous area in the South Caucasus, specifically between Armenia and Azerbaijan, which has been in the news due to the conflict between these two countries over the region.
• It is internationally recognized as part of Azerbaijan but is predominantly inhabited by ethnic Armenians.
• The area is disputed between Azerbaijan and Armenia.

Kherson and Zaporizhzhia

Kherson and Zaporizhzhia: Dispute between Israel and Lebanon - This pair is not correctly matched.

• Kherson and Zaporizhzhia are regions in Ukraine, and they have been in the news due to the conflict between Ukraine and Russia, particularly related to the annexation of Crimea and ongoing tensions in Eastern Ukraine.
• These regions were in the news because Russia occupied Ukrainian regions of Luhansk, Donetsk, Zaporizhzhia, and Kherson in 2022. These regions constitute about 15% of Ukraine's territory.

49. Map Area of conflict

Consider the following pairs: 
Area of conflict mentioned in news Country where it is located.
1. Donbas: Syria 
2. Kachin: Ethiopia 
3. Tigray: North Yemen
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: D

Donbas region in Ukraine

• Donbas is a region in Ukraine, specifically eastern Ukraine, which has been in the news due to the conflict between Ukrainian forces and Russian-backed separatists.
• Historical, cultural, and economic region in eastern Ukraine.
• Occupied by Russian forces in the Donetsk and Luhansk regions.
• It is not located in Syria. Pair 1 is not correctly matched.

Kachin State in Myanmar

• Northernmost state in Myanmar.
• It has been in the news due to conflicts between the Kachin Independence Army and the Burmese government.
• Military air strikes in 2022 killed dozens of people, including civilians at a concert.
• Pair 2 is not correctly matched

Tigray region in Ethiopia

• Northernmost region in Ethiopia.
• It has been in the news due to the conflict between Ethiopian federal forces and Tigrayan regional forces.
• Ongoing civil conflict involving ethno-regional militias, federal government, and Eritrean military.
• First formal African Union-led peace talks between Ethiopian government and Tigray forces happened in South Africa in October 2022.
• Pair 3 is not correctly matched

50. Map Coups

In the recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan caught the international attention for which one of the following reasons common to all of them?
(a) Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth elements
(b) Establishment of Chinese Military bases
(c) Southward expansion of Sahara Desert 
(d) Successful coups

Answer: D

Explanation

• Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth elements: This option is not correct. None of the mentioned countries (Chad, Guinea, Mali, and Sudan) have been in the news for the discovery of rare earth elements.
• Establishment of Chinese Military bases: This option is not correct. There hasn't been widespread news about all four countries mentioned hosting Chinese military bases.
• Southward expansion of Sahara Desert: While this is a significant environmental issue affecting some of the mentioned countries, it hasn't been the recent headline-making event for all of them.
• Successful coups: This option is correct as all four countries mentioned (Chad, Guinea, Mali, and Sudan) have experienced successful coups in recent years, which indeed caught international attention.

Coups

• Recent coups in Chad, Guinea, Mali, and Sudan have attracted significant media coverage and raised concerns.
• In April 2022, the African Union's Peace and Security Council (PSC) approved political transition processes in Burkina Faso, Chad, Guinea, Mali, and Sudan.
• These countries have experienced political instability, with coups or coup attempts occurring in some of them.
• Option (d) is the correct answer, indicating that the PSC's adoption of political transition processes in these countries is the reason for the media attention and concern.

51. Map Civil Strife, Food Shortages and Famine

Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent past for its very severe famine? 
(a) Angola
(b) Costa Rica 
(c) Ecuador 
(d) Somalia

Answer: D

Angola

• Angola has faced civil strife in the past due to conflicts like the Angolan Civil War, but it hasn't been in the news recently for severe famine or food shortages.

Costa Rica

• Costa Rica is relatively stable compared to the other options and has not been in the news for severe famine or civil strife.

Ecuador

• Ecuador has faced economic challenges, including food security issues, but it hasn't been in the news recently for very severe famine or civil strife.

Somalia 

• Somalia has been suffering from decades of civil strife, including conflicts involving warlords, insurgent groups, and foreign interventions.
• Somalia is experiencing a severe hunger crisis due to an extreme drought in the Horn of Africa.
• The current drought is the worst in 40 years, and it has been exacerbated by five consecutive failed rainy seasons.
• The effects of the drought are worsened by other recurring climate shocks, ongoing insecurity, and instability in the country.
• It has also experienced severe famines, such as the 2011 famine that resulted in widespread hunger and deaths.
• Hence, Option (d) is the correct answer.

52. Israel and Arab Countries Diplomatic Relations

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States.
Statement-II: The 'Arab Peace Initiative' Mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect 
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: C

Explanation:

Israel's Peace Treaties with Arab Countries:

• Till the 2000s, Israel had only signed peace treaties with Egypt and Jordan in 1979 and 1994 respectively.
• In 2020, the United Arab Emirates (UAE) and Bahrain became the latest Arab countries to establish diplomatic ties with Israel, known as the Abraham Accords.

The Arab Peace Initiative:

• The Arab Peace Initiative was first presented at an Arab League summit in Beirut in 2002 and later revived at a summit in Riyadh in 2007.
• The initiative offers Israel full peace and normalization in exchange for a complete withdrawal from the occupied Palestinian territories.
• Israel did not sign the initiative as it had several points of contention and was not in a position to seriously engage in a comprehensive peace settlement at the time.

Saudi Arabia's Approach to Relations with Israel:

• In 2022, the Saudi leadership has reaffirmed its adherence to the Arab Peace Initiative as the mainstay of its approach to formalizing relations with Israel.
• This contradicts statement 2, which claims that Saudi Arabia does not adhere to the initiative.
• Option (c) is the correct answer

53. G-20 

Consider the following statements about G-20:
1. The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the international economic and financial issues. 
2. Digital public infrastructure is one of India's G-20 priorities. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only                   (b) 2 only 
(c) Both 1 and 2        (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

G-20

• The G20 group was established in 1999 as a platform for Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial issues.
• The G20 countries account for almost two-thirds of the global population, 75% of global trade, and 85% of the world's GDP.
• After the global financial crisis of 2007, the G20 was elevated to the level of Heads of State/Government and became the "premier forum for international economic cooperation."

Digital Public Infrastructure

• Digital Public Infrastructure is a key priority during India's G20 Presidency.
• Digital public infrastructure, or DPI, is similar to roads, which form a physical network essential for people to connect with each other and access a huge range of goods and services.
• It is a cross-cutting theme across various Working Groups, including Digital Economy, Health, Education, and Global Partnership for Financial inclusion.
• Option (c) is the correct answer.

54. Stability and Growth Pact

Consider the following statements: 
The 'Stability and Growth Pact' of the European Union is a treaty that 
1. limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union 
2. makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities
3. enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies 
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 
(c) All three 
(d) None

Answer: A

Explanation:

Only statement 1 is correct. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

The Pact limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of European Union countries

• This is aimed at ensuring fiscal discipline and stability within the member states.

Enabling countries to share their infrastructure and technologies 

• These statements are incorrect. The SGP does not require countries to share infrastructure or technologies.
• The Stability and Growth Pact primarily focuses on fiscal policies and does not mandate infrastructure sharing among EU countries.
• The pact is concerned with economic stability and growth through fiscal policies, not technology sharing.

Stability and Growth Pact

• The Stability and Growth Pact (SGP) is a set of rules aimed at ensuring sound public finances and coordinated fiscal policies among European Union countries.
• It aims to level the budget deficits of European countries. The SGP serves as the Eurozone's fiscal rulebook, preventing EU countries from overspending.
• The corrective arm of the SGP ensures that Member States adopt appropriate policy responses to correct excessive deficits (and/or debts) by implementing the Excessive Deficit Procedure (EDP).
• Since 1997, member states have agreed to keep their deficit and debt ratios below 3% and 60% of GDP, respectively.
• The European Commission and Council finance ministers are responsible for surveillance and issue annual recommendations on policy measures.
• The SGP includes penalties for countries that consistently break the rules, with fines of up to 0.5% of their GDP.
• Option (a) is the correct answer.

55. Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)

Consider the following statement: 
1. Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the 'Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)'.
2. The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries.
3. The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments.
How many of the above statements are correct? 
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: A

Explanation

• Statement 1 is incorrect: 160 plus countries have adopted the Global Compact for Migration (GCM). The United States, Hungary, Israel, Czech Republic and Poland voted against the compact.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Global Compact for Migration is not legally binding. It is a non-binding agreement that sets out a framework for cooperation on migration.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Global Compact for Migration addresses internal migration and internally displaced persons (IDPs) alongside international migration issues. It aims to enhance cooperation on all forms of migration.

Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)

• The Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration is the first intergovernmental agreement to cover all dimensions of international migration.
• It was adopted in December 2018 by the majority of UN member states.
• The compact is aimed at improving international cooperation on migration issues while recognizing the sovereign right of states to determine their migration policies.
• It provides a framework for addressing various aspects of migration, including its safety, orderliness, and regularity.
• The compact aims to empower migrants to become active members of society.

Key features of the GCM include:

• Non-binding nature: The GCM is not a legally binding treaty. Instead, it is a non-binding agreement that sets out principles, objectives, and guidelines for managing migration at the national, regional, and global levels.
• Comprehensive approach: The compact covers 23 of migration-related issues, including regular migration, irregular migration, labor migration, refugees, displaced persons, and integration of migrants into societies.
• Human rights perspective: The GCM emphasizes the protection of migrants' human rights, regardless of their migration status. It promotes the implementation of existing international human rights instruments in the context of migration.
• Cooperation and partnership: It encourages international cooperation and partnerships among governments, civil society, the private sector, and other stakeholders to address migration challenges effectively.

56. Trade and Technology Council

Consider the following statements: 
Statement-I Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the 'Trade and Technology Council'
Statement-II The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to being technological progress and physical productivity under their control. 
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statement?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect 
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: C

Explanation

Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Trade and Technology Council was launched by the the United States of America and the European Union during the EU-US Summit on 15 June 2021 in Brussels.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Trade and Technology Council aims to enhance cooperation and address various trade and technology-related issues between the USA and the EU. It's not about bringing technological progress under their control.
Note: Although, this statement might be true ideologically, there is no mention of such policies ever in any document.
Trade and Technology council, the USA and EU does not aim to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control. 

Trade and Technology Council

• Trade and Technology Council launched by the US and EU to address trade, technology, and security challenges.
• Forum for coordination on global trade, economic, and technology issues.
• Aims to deepen transatlantic trade and economic relations based on shared values.
• Objectives include ensuring trade and technology benefit societies and economies, strengthening technological and industrial leadership, and expanding bilateral trade and investment.

History UPSC Prelims 2023 Questions with Solutions

57. Dhanyakataka 

In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located? 
(a) Andhra 
(b) Gandhara
(c) Kalinga 
(d) Magadha

Answer: A

Dhanyakataka

• Literary traditions of Buddhism in Andhra Pradesh during pre-Mauryan period.
• Amaravati and Dhanyakataka as famous Buddhist sites associated with Buddha.
• Amaravati and Dharanikota as part of ancient Dhanyakataka, the capital of later Satavahanas.
• Different sects of Buddhism emerged with the spread of Buddhism in the country.
• Examples of sects and their centers of activity (Theravadins in Kausambi, Sarvastivadins in Mathura, Bhadra Yanika sect in Nasik and Kanheri).
• Origin and growth of sects influenced by geographical diversities, attitudes of communities, and lack of coordination.
• Dhanyakataka (Amaravati) region as stronghold of Mahayana Buddhism under the Satavahanas.
• Sthaviravadins as popular in the north.

Mahasanghika

• The Mahāsānghika was a significant division of early Buddhist schools in India.
• Emerged from the first schism of the original pre-sectarian Buddhist tradition.
• Schism believed to have occurred after the Second Buddhist council during or after Ashoka's reign.
• Developed into numerous sects that spread throughout ancient India.
• Mahāsānghika Vinaya considered by some scholars as the oldest Buddhist monastic source.
• While the Mahāsānghika tradition no longer exists, it influenced later Mahāyāna Buddhism.
• Ideas from Mahāsānghika tradition include the belief in the Buddha as a transcendent being, multiple Buddhas and bodhisattvas, inherent purity of the mind, reflexive awareness, and absolute nominalism.

58. Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri

With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well known as :
(a) capital cities 
(b) ports 
(c) centres of iron-and steel making 
(d) shrines of Jain tirthankaras

Answer: B

Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri

• Well-known ports in early historical South India.
• Insights from Sangam literature.
• Kaverippumpattinam (Pumpuhar or Puhar) was the premier Chola port.
• Korkai was the major Pandya port.
• Tondi and Muchiri was important ports in the Chera kingdom.

59. Stupa

With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements:
1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin. 
2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics. 
3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition. 
How many of the statements given above are correct? 
(a) Only one 
(b) Only two 
(c) All three 
(d) None

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: 

• Stupa is a burial structure containing relics of Buddhist monks.  Stupas are defenitely associated with Buddhism.  However, the concept of stupa does not have a Buddhist origin. The word "stupa" is mentioned in various ancient texts such as the Rigveda and Atharvaveda.
• The Pali word "thupa" is similar to the term "stupa" and refers to a conical heap or shrine containing a relic.

Statement 2 is correct:

• Stupas served as containers for relics, typically of Buddhist saints or important figures.
• Stupa is regarded as a monument for veneration and is associated with votive and commemorative purposes.

Statement 3 is correct: 

• Stupas were built as offerings (votive) and to commemorate important events or persons in Buddhist history.
• Buddhist and Jaina texts mention the commemorative aspects of the stupa.
• In later periods, the stupa acquired a votive character due to the desire of the common mass to worship for salvation.

60. Vattakirutal

Which one of the following explains the practice of 'Vattakirutal' as mentioned in Sangam poems?
(a) Kings employing women bodyguards
(b) Learned persons assembling in royal courts to discuss religious and philosophical matters
(c) Young girls keeping watch over agricultural fields and driving away birds and animals
(d) A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death

Answer: D

Explanation

Ganika Rani, or Dasis or Mahadasis

• Kings employing women bodyguards: Known as the Ganika Rani, or Dasis or Mahadasis. 
• These women bodyguards were a unique feature of the Vijayanagara Empire in South India.

Sabha or Samiti

• Learned persons assembling in royal courts to discuss religious and philosophical matters.

Kanika Rani or Kanikadharini

• Young girls keeping watch over agricultural fields and driving away birds and animals: They are referred to as

Kanika Rani or Kanikadharini. 

• This practice is known as Kudimakkal, where young girls were employed to protect agricultural fields from pests and animals in medieval Kerala.

Vattakirutal

• Vatakkiruttal was a Tamil ritual of fasting till death.
• It was common during the Sangam age.
• Tamil kings would face North and fast till death to save their honour and prestige.
• It was a martial vow known as 'nōnpu'.
• The ritual could be done alone or as a group with supporters of the captured king.

Sangam Poems and Vattakirutal

• Sangam poems emphasize a warrior ethic and the pursuit of glory and fame.
• Heroic death is highly valued in these poems, as it is believed that warriors who die in battle dwell in paradise.
• In some cases, the bodies of warriors who did not die in battle were cut with swords before their funerary rites to simulate death in battle.
• The practice of vattakirutal involved a defeated king committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death, accompanied by his close associates.
• The worship of memorial stones, known as natukal, was a way to honor heroes who died bravely in battle, as it was believed that their spirits resided in these stones.

61. Ancient Literature

With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs:
    Literary work                   Author
1. Devichandragupta:         Bilhana
2. Hammira-Mahakavya:    Nayachandra Suri
3. Milinda-panha:                Nagarjuna
4. Nitivakyamrita:                Somadeva Suri
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one        (b) Only two
(c) Only three        (d) All four

Answer: B

Explanation:

• Devichandragupta: Devichandragupta is a play written by Vishakhadatta, not Bilhana.
• Milinda-panha and Nagarjuna are not correctly matched.
• Other 2 pairs are correctly matched.

Devichandragupta

• Devi-Chandraguptam is an Indian Sanskrit-language political drama attributed to Vishakhadeva, also known as Vishakhadatta.
• The complete text of the play is lost, but parts of it are quoted in later works and a Persian adaptation exists in Majmal-ut-Tawarikh.
• The plot involves King Ramagupta surrendering his queen Dhruvadevi to an enemy, with his brother Chandragupta disguising himself as the queen to kill the enemy ruler.
• The play ends with Chandragupta dethroning Ramagupta and marrying Dhruvadevi.
• The historicity of the play is debated, with some historians believing it is based on real events while others argue that later sources may have been influenced by the play itself.

Hammira-Mahakavya

• Hammira Mahakavya is a 15th-century Indian Sanskrit epic poem written by Jain scholar Nayachandra Suri.
• The poem is a legendary biography of the 13th century Chahamana king Hammira.
• While not entirely historically accurate, the text provides valuable information about medieval history in north-western India.
• The text describes Hammira's ancestry and his conquests of neighbouring Hindu kingdoms.
• The last part of the poem details Hammira's conflict with Sultan of Delhi, Ala-ud-Din Khalji.
• Hammira's defeat against Ala-ud-Din is attributed to betrayal by his officers.

Milinda-panha    

• The Milindapañha is a Buddhist text dating from 100 BC to 200 AD.
• It records a dialogue between Nāgasena and King Menander I of Bactria.
• Considered canonical in Burmese Buddhism and included in the Khuddaka Nikāya.
• Abridged version included in Chinese Mahāyāna translations of the canon.
• Note: UPSC distinguishes Nagasena from Nagarjuna, as seen in a question from Prelims 1997.

Canonical Status of the Milindapañha:

• Not regarded as canonical in Thai or Sri Lankan Buddhism.
• Surviving Theravāda text in Sinhalese script.
• Chinese text titled the Monk Nāgasena Sutra corresponds to the first three chapters of the Milindapañha.
• Translated during the Eastern Jin dynasty (317–420).

Nitivakyamrita

• The Nitivakyamrita is a work on ethics, politics, and social norms written in Sanskrit. 
• It was written by Somadeva Suri, a renowned Jain monk and scholar.

Bilhana 

• Kavi Bilhana: 11th-century Kashmiri poet known for Caurapañcāśikā
• Love affair with Princess Yaminipurnatilaka: Fell in love, imprisoned, wrote love poem
• Transmission of Caurapañcāśikā: Oral transmission in India, various versions with different endings
• Translations of Caurapañcāśikā: First translated into French in 1848, notable translations by Arnold and Mathers
• Wanderings and appointment by King Vikramaditya VI: Bilhana's search for fame, appointed as Vidyapathi by the king
• Importance of Bilhana in Sanskrit literature: Significant poet from Medieval Kashmir
• Chaurapanchasika as a marker of age: Poem stands out in literary history.

Nayachandra Suri

• Nayachandra Suri was a poet from Kashmir in the 12th century CE.
• He is famous for his epic poem, Hammira-Mahakavya.
• The poem narrates the tale of Hammira, the final Hindu ruler of Anhilwada Patan.

Nagarjuna

• The Indian philosopher Acharya Nagarjuna is the founder of the Madhyamaka school of Mahayana Buddhism.
• The book "Milinda Panho" records the dialogue between King Milind and Nagasena.
• Note: UPSC distinguishes Nagasena from Nagarjuna, as seen in a question from Prelims 1997.

Somadeva Suri

• Somadeva Suri was a Jain monk from South India in the 10th century CE.
• He wrote a work called "Upasakadyayana" which focused on instructions for Jain lay followers.
• The work is considered a central piece of Digambara shravakacara literature.
• It provides guidance and prescriptions for Jain lay followers, known as shravakas.

62. Soul in Religions

"Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects." The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancient India? 
(a) Buddhism 
(b) Jainism 
(c) Shaivism 
(d) Vaishnavism

Answer: B

Explanation:

Soul in Religions

• Jainism's belief in the existence of souls in every atom, but not as Jiva due to the absence of sense organs.
• The soul in Jainism is considered both permanent and changing.
• Substance in Jainism is divided into two categories based on extension in space.
• Jainism acknowledges the presence of souls but rejects the concept of an ultimate, universal soul.
• Option (b) aligns with Jainism's beliefs and is therefore the correct answer.

63. Cave Shrines

Consider the following pairs: 
Site Well known for 
1.Besnagar:         Shaivite cave shrine
2.Bhaja:               Buddhist cave shrine 
3.Sittanavasal:    Jain cave shrine 
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: B

Explanation:

• Pair 1 is not correctly matched. Besnagar is a Vaishnavite cave shrine.
• Pair 2 is correctly matched. Bhaja is a Buddhist cave shrine.
• Pair 3 is correctly matched. Sittanavasal is a Jain cave shrine.
• Option (b) is the correct answer.

Besnagar: Vaishnavite cave shrine

• During the second century BC to third century AD, rulers from West Asia and Central Asia assimilated into Indian culture and adopted Indian religions.
• Some rulers adopted Vaishnavism and worshipped Lord Vishnu.
• The Greek ambassador Heliodorus set up a pillar in honor of Lord Vasudeva at Besnagar.

Bhaja: Buddhist cave shrine

• Bhaja caves are located in Pune and are Buddhist caves.
• The caves have apsidal vault roof chaitya halls.

Sittanavasal: Jain cave shrine

• Sittanavasal Cave is located in a hamlet in the Pudukkottai district of Tamil Nadu.
• It is a Jain complex of caves dating back to the 2nd century.
• Monks from eastern India settled in Sittanavasal to preach Jainism and spread the teachings of ascetic life.
• Sittanavasal became a major Jain centre.
• The cave is considered a rock-cut monastery and contains murals made with vegetable and mineral dyes.

64. Dynasties in Medieval India: Hoysala, Gahadavala, Kakatiya, Yadava

Consider the following dynasties:
1. Hoysala
2. Gahadavala
3. Kakatiya
4. Yadava
How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in early eighth century AD?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None

Answer: D

All pairs are wrong.

Hoysala Dynasty (1026 CE – 1343 CE)

• The Hoysala era was a period of significant achievements in art, architecture, and culture.
• The Hoysala dynasty was centered in the present-day Hassan district of Karnataka, India.

Gahadavala Dynasty (11th to 12th centuries)

• The Gahadavala dynasty, also known as Gahadavalas of Kannauj, ruled parts of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. 
• The Gahadavala dynasty's capital was located in Banaras, and they briefly controlled Kannauj.

Kakatiya Dynasty (12th to 14th centuries)

• The Kakatiya dynasty ruled the eastern Deccan region of present-day India.
• The Kakatiya dynasty's territory included Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, parts of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Odisha.

Yadava Dynasty (Late 9th century AD to early 14th century AD)

• The Seuna, Sevuna, or Yadava dynasty was an Indian dynasty that ruled a kingdom stretching from the Tungabhadra to the Narmada rivers.
• The Seuna dynasty's territory included present-day Maharashtra, north Karnataka, and parts of Madhya Pradesh.
• The Seuna dynasty's capital was located in Devagiri, present-day Daulatabad in Maharashtra.

65. Dam across Tungabhadra River

Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometres long from the river to the capital city?
(a) Devaraya I
(b) Mallikarjuna
(c) Vira Vijaya
(d) Virupaksha

Answer: A

Explanation:

• Devaraya I, around 1410 A.D., built a barrage across the Tungabhadra river.
• Devaraya I also commissioned a 24 km long aqueduct from the Tungabhadra river to the capital.
• The projects undertaken by Devaraya I, as described by Nuniz, brought prosperity to the Kingdom.
• Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Tungabhadra River

• The Tungabhadra River in India flows through Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh before joining the Krishna River near Murvakonda.
• The river is formed by the confluence of two streams, the Tunga and the Bhadra, which rise in the Western Ghats.
• It runs for a total of 531 km, with 382 km in Karnataka, 58 km forming the boundary between Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh, and 91 km in Andhra Pradesh.
• The total catchment area of the river is 69,552 km2 up to its confluence with Krishna and 28,177 km2 up to Tungabhadra Dam.
• The river is influenced by the South-West monsoon and has summer flows that can dwindle to as low as 2.83 to 1.42 cumec. 

Devaraya I

• Deva Raya I was a king of the Vijayanagara Empire from 1406 to 1422 CE.
• He emerged victorious in a succession dispute after the death of Harihara II.
• Known for his military prowess and support for irrigation works in his kingdo.

Military Modernization and Expansion

• Deva Raya I modernized the Vijayanagara army by improving cavalry and archers.
• He imported horses from Arabia and Persia to enhance the fighting capacity of his bowmen.
• Italian traveler Niccolo Conti described him as more powerful than all the kings of India.

Patron of Literature and Architecture

• Deva Raya I was a patron of Kannada literature and architecture.
• Noted Jain poet Madhura wrote the Dharmanathapurana in his court.
• The Hazara Rama temple, an example of Deccan architecture, was constructed during his rule.

Mallikarjuna

• The Sri Bhramaramba Mallikarjuna Temple, also known as Srisailam Temple, is located in Andhra Pradesh, India.
• This Hindu temple is dedicated to the deities Shiva and Parvati.
• It is considered one of the twelve Jyotirlingas of Shiva and one of the eighteen Shakti Pithas, important centers of the Hindu Goddess.
• Shiva is worshipped as Mallikarjuna in the form of a lingam, while Parvati is depicted as Bhramaramba.

Vira Vijaya

• Veera Vijaya Bukka Raya was an emperor of the Vijayanagara Empire from the Sangama Dynasty.
• He succeeded his brother, Ramachandra Raya, in 1422 as the emperor of the Vijayanagara Empire.
• His reign was short and not known for any significant achievements.
• He faced an invasion from the Bahmani Sultanate under Ahmad Shah I Wali.
• The Bahmanis defeated Vijayanagar in the Siege of Vijayanagar and recaptured their lost territories.

Virupaksha Raya

• Born in 1365 CE, Virupaksha Raya was an emperor of the Vijayanagara Empire.
• Disputed Throne: After the death of Harihara II in 1404, the throne was disputed among his sons: Deva Raya I, Bukka Raya II, and Virupaksha Raya.
• Short Reign: Virupaksha Raya ruled for only a few months before being murdered by his sons.
• Succession: He was succeeded by his brother Bukka Raya II, who ruled for two years before being succeeded by Deva Raya I.
• Despite his short rule, Virupaksha Raya did not have any major events or changes during his reign.
• Loss of Territory: It was noted that Virupaksha Raya lost significant territories like Goa, Chaul, and Dabhol to the Muslims during his reign.

66. Bahadur Shah 

Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to Portuguese? 
(a) Ahmad Shah 
(b) Mahmud Begarha 
(c) Bahadur Shah 
(d) Muhammad Shah

Answer: C

Explanation:

• Bahadur Shah I, ruled Gujarat from 1526 to 1537. He is known for surrendering the important port of Diu to the Portuguese in 1534. 
• Nino da Cunha changed the capital of the Portuguese colony from Cochin to Goa in 1530. This event had significant consequences for the Portuguese presence in the Indian Ocean region.
• Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Ahmad Shah

• Ahmad Shah I was a ruler of the Muzaffarid dynasty in Gujarat from 1411 to 1442.
• He was the grandson of Sultan Muzaffar Shah, the founder of the dynasty.
• Ahmad Shah I was also a poet and wrote a collection of Persian poetry.
• He is known for founding Ahmedabad, which is now Gujarat's most populous city and bears his name.

Mahmud Begarha

• Sultan Mahmud Begarha was the most powerful Sultan of Gujarat Sultanate.
• Son of Muhammad Shah II.
• Uncle Daud Khan was initially elevated to the throne but engaged in unethical behavior
• Overthrown in a matter of days.
• Half-brother Fateh Khan, son of Muhammad Shah II, became Sultan Mahmud Shah I at the age of thirteen.
• Fought against Hindu and Muslim rulers, including Malwa's Mahmud Khilji.
• Expanded the kingdom to its greatest size, with borders along the Arabian Sea, Khandesh, Malwa, Jalor, and Nagaur.
• Trade and commerce flourished under his reign.
• Supported arts and literature during his rule.

Qutb-ud-Din Bahadur Shah: Sultan of Gujarat Sultanate

• Born Bahadur Khan, reigned from 1526 to 1535 and 1536 to 1537.
• Ascended throne after competing with brothers.
• Expanded kingdom and made expeditions to help neighbouring kingdoms.

Conflict with Mughal Emperor Humayun:

• Gujarat came under attack by Humayun in 1532.
• Bahadur Shah regained kingdom in 1536.
• Killed by Portuguese on ship while making deal with them.

Army of Bahadur Shah:

• Included Koli tribe and Abyssinians.
• Kolis of Gujarat attacked Humayun at Gulf of Khambhat to help Bahadur Shah.

Muhammad Shah

• Muhammad Shah I, originally known as Tatar Khan, briefly ruled over the Gujarat Sultanate from 1403 to 1404 after disposing his father Muzaffar Shah I.
• In 1396, Tatar Khan attempted to capture Delhi but was forced to withdraw to Gujarat by Iqbal Khan who captured his baggage at the fort of Panipat.
• After the death of Nasir ud din Muhammad Shah III in 1392, his son Sikandar briefly assumed the throne before his brother Nasir-ud-Din Mahmud Shah Tughluq II took over. However, his cousin Nusrat Khan also claimed the throne in Firuzabad.
• Timur invaded India in 1398, defeating Mahmud II and looting and destroying much of Delhi. Mahmud II escaped to Patan but was unable to secure alliances to march back to Delhi.
• Mahmud II's authority over provinces weakened as governors ruled independently, leading to a decline in his power.

67. Charter Act of 1833

By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India?
(a) The Regulating Act
(b) The Pitt's India Act
(c) The Charter Act of 1793
(d) The Charter Act of 1833

Answer: D

The Charter Act of 1833

Background of the Charter Act, 1833:

• The Charter Act, 1833 was enacted in the context of significant changes in Great Britain due to the Industrial Revolution.
• Laissez Faire was embraced as the government's approach towards industrial enterprise.
• The Reform Act of 1832 reflected the liberal movement of the time.
• The Parliament was called upon to renew the Charter in 1833 amidst this atmosphere of liberalism and reforms.

About the Charter Act, 1833:

• Also known as the Saint Helena Act 1833 or Government of India Act 1833.
• Control of Saint Helena was transferred from the East India Company to the Crown.
• Passed by the British Parliament to renew the Charter Act, 1813 of the East India Company.
• Renewed the EIC's charter for 20 years.
• The East India Company lost its commercial privileges.
• The Company's monopoly over trade, except for tea and trade with China, was ended due to Laissez-Faire and Napoleon Bonaparte's continental system.
• Final step towards centralization in British India: Governor-General of Bengal becomes Governor-General of India with all civil and military powers. Lord William Bentick becomes first Governor-General of India.
• Creation of Government of India with authority over entire British territorial area in India.
• Governor of Bombay and Madras lose legislative powers, Governor-General of India gains exclusive legislative powers for all of British India.
• Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Regulating Act, 1773

• The Regulating Act 1773 was a law passed by the British Parliament to improve the management of the East India Company's rule in Bengal.
• However, the Act did not effectively address the issues with the company's operations.
• As a result, the more comprehensive Pitt's India Act was passed in 1784 to bring about more significant reforms.
• Pitt's India Act was a significant step towards parliamentary oversight of the East India Company and centralized administration in India.

Pitt's India Act, 1784

• The EIC Act 1784, also known as Pitt's India Act, was passed by the Parliament of Great Britain to address the shortcomings of the Regulating Act of 1773.
• Named after British prime minister William Pitt the Younger, the act aimed to bring the East India Company's rule in India under the control of the British Government.
• The act established a Board of Control for political activities and a Court of Directors for financial and commercial activities.
• The joint government of British India was to be managed by both the Company and the Crown, with the government holding the ultimate authority.
• The EIC Act 1784 was necessary to rectify the defects of the Regulating Act and ensure better governance in India.

Charter Act of 1793 

• The East India Company Act 1793, also known as the Charter Act 1793, was a renewal of the charter issued to the British East India Company (EIC) by the Parliament of Great Britain.
• The Act continued the veto power originally given to Lord Cornwallis for all Governor Generals.
• The Act placed Bombay and Madras presidencies under the supervision of Fort William.
• The Act also included provisions to address the issue of infanticide.

68. Archaeologists

With reference to the Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with:
(a) archaeological excavations 
(b) establishment of English Press in Colonial India 
(c) establishment of Churches in Princely States
(d) construction of railways in Colonial India

Answer: A

Explanation:

• They are the archaeologists associated with excavations in south British India.

1. Alexander Rea

• British archaeologist who primarily worked in South British India.
• Known for excavating a sarcophagus from the hillocks of Pallavaram in Tamil Nadu

2. Albert Henry Longhurst

• British archaeologist and art historian who worked in India and Ceylon
• Brother-in-law of Sir John Marshall, Director-General of the Archaeology Survey of India
• Appointed Superintendent of the Southern Circle, Archaeological Survey of India in October 1913
• In charge of systematic digging of Nagarjunakonda from 1927 to 1931
• Served as the Archaeological Commissioner, Archaeological Survey of Ceylon from 1934 to 1940
• Focused more on conservation/restoration rather than excavation, mainly working at Polonnaruwa but also at Anuradhapura and Sigiriya

3. Robert Sewell

• Worked in the civil service of the Madras Presidency during colonial rule in India.
• Keeper of the Madras Record Office.
• Specialized in the Vijayanagara Empire and authored "A Forgotten Empire Vijayanagar: A Contribution to the History of India" (1900).
• Undertook archaeological work, including at the Buddhist stupa at Amaravati, which had already been largely destroyed prior to his arrival.
• Site previously surveyed by Colin Mackenzie and Walter Elliot.

4. Walter Elliot

• Commissioner of Guntur (Andhra Pradesh) in 1854.
• Visited Amaravati and collected several sculpture panels, known as the Elliot marbles.
• Discovered remains of the western gateway at Amaravati and concluded it was one of the largest and most magnificent Buddhist stupas ever built.

69. Swadeshi Movement

Consider the following statements: 
Statement-I: 7th August is declared as the National Handloom Day.
Statement-II: It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect 
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: A

Swadeshi Movement

• The Swadeshi movement was a response to the British government's decision to partition Bengal in December 1903.
• The movement aimed to promote self-sufficiency by encouraging domestic production and reducing reliance on foreign goods.
• Rich Indians donated money and land to support Khadi and Gramodyog societies, leading to the production of cloth in every household.
• The Indian National Congress used the Swadeshi movement as a tool in its fight for freedom.
• The partition of Bengal was intended to weaken the growing discontent among Indians, but instead revitalized the Congress.
• The divide-and-conquer strategy of dividing Bengal by religion led to the Swadeshi movement.
• The reunification of Bengal in 1911 and the shift of the British capital to New Delhi changed the focus of the Swadeshi movement.

National Handloom Day

• Ministry of Textiles celebrates National Handloom Day on August 7.
• National Handloom Day commemorates the Swadeshi movement.
• Swadeshi movement began in 1905 and was first observed in 2015.
• Swadeshi Movement formally proclaimed on August 7, 1905, at Calcutta Town Hall meeting.
• Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer. 

Polity & Governance UPSC Prelims 2023 Questions with Solutions

70. Due Process of Law

In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' mean? 
(a) The principle of natural justice 
(b) The procedure established by law 
(c) Fair application of law 
(d) Equality before law

Answer: C

Explanation

• The correct answer is option C, i.e. Fair application of law. 'Due Process of Law' refers to the fair and just application of legal procedures and protections in the legal system. This includes ensuring that individuals are treated fairly, have access to legal remedies, and are not subjected to arbitrary actions by the government or other entities.
• The difference between "procedure established by law" and "due process of law" lies in the fact that the former pertains solely to judicial review of executive decisions for fairness, while the latter encompasses scrutiny not only of executive decisions but also of legislative laws for their fairness.
• Possible Dispute: As per Vision IAS, answer is (a). Due Process of Law ensures that the procedure used to make a law is fair and rational. Natural justice is a requirement of fairness in the legal process.

Due Process of Law

• The principle of Due Process of Law guarantees fair play by giving every party the right to be heard.
• The Supreme Court of India recognized the principle of Due Process of Law in the Maneka Gandhi case to eliminate arbitrariness.
• Natural Justice encompasses fairness, reasonableness, equity, and equality.
• Natural Justice is a set of procedural principles that administrative agencies must follow when making decisions that affect the rights of individuals.

71. Constitutionalism 

Which one of the following statements best reflects the chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a country?
(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
(c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security.

Answer: C

Explanation:

• While a constitution may encompass various purposes, and all the statements seems correct, the chief purpose of a constitution is generally considered to be the establishment of the framework for government, including defining and limiting the powers of the government.
• Option (a) relates more to the legislative process rather than the purpose of a constitution itself.
• Option (b) is a component of what a constitution enables but is not its chief purpose.
• Option (d) touches on important goals that a constitution may aim to achieve but does not directly address the primary purpose of defining and limiting governmental powers.

Constitutionalism

• Constitutionalism refers to the concept of limited government or placing limitations on government power.
• The main purpose of a country's constitution is to establish a framework for the government by determining its nature and form.
• The constitution also outlines the responsibilities of the different branches of government, including the executive, legislature, and judiciary.
• The legislature is responsible for creating laws that align with the directions and limitations set forth in the constitution.
• Option (c) is the correct answer.

72. Constitutional Amendments 

In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?
(a) 1st Amendment
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) 86thAmendment

Answer: A

Constitutional Amendments 

• Supremacy of Fundamental Rights (FR) questioned vis-a-vis other constitutional provisions.
• Difficulties brought to light by judicial decisions and pronouncements regarding fundamental rights.
• Citizen's right to freedom of speech and expression held to be comprehensive, even allowing advocacy of murder and violence.
• First Amendment Act, 1951 aimed to amend article 19 to address these issues.
• Changes made to Fundamental Rights provisions by the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951.
• Restrictions on freedom of speech and expression, validation of zamindari abolition laws, and clarification on the right to equality.
• 43rd and 44th amendment Acts aimed to undo changes introduced by the 42nd Amendment Act, not to overcome judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights.
• Option (a) is the correct answer.

1st Amendment Act, 1951:

• Moved by Jawaharlal Nehru on 10 May 1951.
• Enacted by Parliament on 18 June 1951.
• Changes to Fundamental Rights provisions.
• Restrictions on freedom of speech and expression.
• Validation of zamindari abolition laws.
• Clarification on right to equality and special consideration for weaker sections.

Precedent Set:

• Amendment to overcome judicial judgements.
• Fulfilment of government's responsibilities to policies and programmes.
• Establishing the ability to amend the Constitution for specific purposes.

42nd Amendment

• The 42nd Amendment was enacted during the Emergency by the Indian National Congress government led by Indira Gandhi.
• Most provisions of the amendment came into effect in January 1977.
• The amendment aimed to reduce the power of the Supreme Court and High Courts and laid down Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens.
• It is considered the most controversial constitutional amendment in history and is nicknamed the Mini-Constitution.
• The 42nd Amendment made widespread changes to the Constitution, including altering the Preamble and constitution amending clause.
• The amendment stripped the Supreme Court of powers, moved towards parliamentary sovereignty, and gave more power to the Prime Minister's Office.
• It curtailed democratic rights, gave Parliament unrestrained power to amend the Constitution, and transferred power from state governments to the central government.
• The 42nd Amendment also changed the description of India in the Preamble to a "sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic" and altered the words regarding the unity of the nation

44th Amendment

• The Forty-fourth Amendment of the Constitution of India was passed in 1978 by the Janata Party.
• The Janata Party won the 1977 general elections on a promise to reverse changes made during the Emergency.
• The Amendment aimed to undo alterations made by the 42nd Amendment enacted by the Indian National Congress during the Emergency.

86thAmendment

• The Eighty-sixth Amendment of the Constitution of India guarantees the Right to Education for children aged six to fourteen years.
• It includes Early childhood care for children up to the age of six.
• The amendment inserts Article 21A, making Right to Education a Fundamental Right.
• It replaces Article 45 of the Directive principles of State policy, which focused on Early Childhood Education.
• Article 51A of the Fundamental Duties is amended to include a new duty for parents to provide education to their children between the ages of six and fourteen years.

73. Constitutional Bodies

Consider the following organizations/bodies in India:
1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
2. The National Human Rights Commission
3. The National Law Commission
4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer: A

Explanation:

• National Commission for Backward Classes: Established through a constitutional amendment act in 2018, it is a constitutional body under Article 338B of the Indian Constitution.
• National Human Rights Commission: Established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, it is a statutory body.
• National Law Commission: An executive body responsible for legal reforms in India.
• National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: Established in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986, it is a quasi-judicial and statutory body.
• Option (a) is the correct answer.

National Commission for Backward Classes

• NCBC is an Indian constitutional body under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, Government of India.
• Established through the Constitution Act, 2018 (102nd Amendment Act, 2018).
• Made a constitutional body under Article 338B of the Indian Constitution.
• Constituted pursuant to the provisions of the National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993.

Role of NCBC:

• Actively participates and advises on the socio-economic development of socially backward classes (OBCs).
• Evaluates the progress of development of socially backward classes.

National Human Rights Commission

• The NHRC was established on 12 October 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Ordinance of 28 September 1993.
• It was given a statutory basis by the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 (PHRA).
• The NHRC is responsible for the protection and promotion of human rights.
• Human rights are defined as "Rights Relating to Life, liberty, equality and dignity of the individual guaranteed by the constitution or embodied in the international covenants and enforceable by courts in India".

National Law Commission

• The Law Commission of India is an executive body established by the Government of India to research and advise on legal reform.
• Composed of legal experts and headed by a retired judge, the commission works as an advisory body to the Ministry of Law and Justice.

History of the Law Commission:

• The first Law Commission was established during colonial rule in India by the East India Company under the Charter Act of 1833, presided over by Lord Macaulay.
• Since independence, twenty-two Law Commissions have been established, with the last chairman being Justice B.S. Chauhan.

Recent Developments:

• The Government of India announced its intention to reconstitute the commission in February 2020.
• A petition challenging the delay in appointing members to the 22nd Law Commission is currently being heard by the Supreme Court of India.
• On November 7, 2022, Justice Rituraj Awasthi was appointed as the chairperson of the 22nd Law Commission, along with other members.

National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

• NCDRC is a quasi-judicial commission in India established in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986
• Headquartered in New Delhi, it is headed by a sitting or retired judge of the Supreme Court of India
• The current head is Justice A.P. Sahi, former Chief Justice of Madras High Court of India

74. President of India: Election and Bills

Consider the following statements:
1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect 

• In the case of a void election, only the election itself is invalidated, not the acts done by the President during their tenure until the election is declared void. The actions of a President or Vice President are still valid even if their election is declared void.
• Article 71 (2) protects the actions of a President or Vice President whose election has been declared void by the Supreme Court.
• The actions performed by the President or Vice President before the Supreme Court's decision will not be invalidated.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Article 71 (4) states that the election of a President or Vice President cannot be questioned due to any vacancies among the members of the electoral college.
• Postponement of the election is not an option according to Article 71 (4).
• The dissolution of a state legislative assembly does not prevent the timely election of a new President, as ruled by the Supreme Court in 1974.
• Statement 2 is incorrect because the existence of vacancies in the electoral college does not affect the validity of the election.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• The Indian Constitution does not specify a time limit for the President to make a decision on a bill presented for their assent.
• There is no specific time limit for the President to decide on bills presented for assent, allowing the President to keep bills pending indefinitely.

Election of President of India

Indirect Election Process of the President of India:

• The President is elected by an electoral college consisting of MPs and MLAs.
• Electoral college comprises 776 MPs and 4,033 MLAs.
• Voting power of a state or territory is proportional to its population.

Voting System and Threshold:

• Electoral college members are eligible to cast 1,086,431 votes.
• Majority threshold is 543,216 votes.

Candidate Eligibility and Election Process:

• Candidates must be subscribed by at least 50 electors as proposers and seconders.
• Election is held by secret ballot under instant-runoff voting system.
• Election process is provided by Article 55 of the Constitution.

Powers of President of India regarding Passing the Bills

Process of passing a bill to the President for approval:

• Bill passed by both houses.
• Sent to President for approval per Article 111

President's options for assenting to a bill

• Assent.
• Withhold assent.
• Return bill (except money bill recommended by President).

President's role in recommending bills:

• Not compulsory for Parliament or state legislature acts.
• Final consent mandatory.

President's power to return bill for constitutional violations:

• Recommendations for constituent powers of Parliament.
• Cannot withhold constitutional amendment bill per Article 368.

Consequences of President's decision on a bill:

• Assent leads to publication in The Gazette of India.
• Withholding leads to dropped bill (absolute veto).

President's veto powers:

• Absolute veto on aid and advice of Council of Ministers.
• Pocket veto at own discretion (used once in 1986 by President Zail Singh).

Parliament's response to President's actions on bills:

• Reconsideration if returned by President.
• Modification as constitutional amendment bill for compelling assent.

More Info

• Judicial review of constitutional amendment acts: Supreme Court can quash act if violating basic structure of Constitution.
• Impeachment proceedings against President: Two-thirds majority of each house of Parliament needed for impeachment under Article 61.

75. Election to the President of India

Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India:
1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three 
(d) All four

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Nominated MPs and MLAs are not included in the electoral college.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The value of the vote of each MLA (Member of Legislative Assembly) is not directly proportional to the number of elective Assembly seats in a state. It is determined by a formula that includes the population of the state and the number of elected members in its Legislative Assembly.

Formula for Calculating Value of Votes in Presidential Election:

• Value of Vote of an MLA = Total Population of the State / (Number of Elected Members of the State Legislative Assembly X 1000)
• This formula ensures that the value of votes is proportional to the population and representation in the state, rather than just the number of assembly seats.
• Hence, each MLA’s vote value varies from State to State. 
• According to the 84th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2001, the population of the States is calculated using data from the 1971 Census.
• The Constitution (Eighty-fourth) Amendment Act, 2001 states that the population figures for calculating the value of votes for the Presidential Election will be based on the 1971 census until the first census after 2026 is published. This means that the population used for calculating the value of votes is not up-to-date.

Statement 3 is incorrect, and Statement 4 is correct:

• Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, lesser will be the value of vote of each MLA of that State.  
• The value of each MLA's vote decreases with an increase in the number of assembly seats, assuming the population remains constant (as per the formula).

The value of votes for MLAs in different states and Union Territories is as follows: 

• Madhya Pradesh: 131
• Kerala: 152
• Arunachal Pradesh: 8
• Puducherry: 16

Challenges in Statement 3 and 4: 

• These statements may be true or false depending on the specific populations and number of elected members in the legislatures of (a) Madhya Pradesh and Kerala; or (b) Puducherry and Arunachal Pradesh.
• Also, it is not advisable to remember 1971 population data.
• It cannot be determined without these specific numbers. It is almost impossible to do these calculations in exam hall.

76. Finance Bill and Money Bill 

With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament consider the following statements: 
1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.
How many of the above statements are correct? 
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three 
(d) None

Answer: A

Explanation:

The Finance Bill is a part of the Union Budget, stipulating all the legal amendments required for the changes in taxation proposed by the finance minister. As per Article 110 of the Constitution of India, the Finance Bill is a Money Bill.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill. A Finance Bill can be categorized as a Money Bill if it contains provisions related to certain financial matters specified in Article 110 of the Indian Constitution. When a Money Bill is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha, it can only make recommendations but cannot amend or reject the Bill.

Statement 2 is correct: As per Article 109 of the Indian Constitution, a Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill but can only make recommendations to the Lok Sabha. However, the Lok Sabha is not bound by these recommendations and may either accept or reject them. 

Statement 3 is incorrect: In the case of a Money Bill, if the Rajya Sabha does not pass it within 14 days, it is deemed to have been passed by both Houses. There is no provision for a joint sitting in the case of a Money Bill. As a finance bill is a money bill, so no joint sitting houses is allowed under Article 108. 

Scope of Elimination: A joint sitting does not become necessary for Finance Bill.

Finance Bill

• Finance Bill is a type of Money Bill defined in Article 110 (a) of the Constitution.
• It deals with proposals for new taxes, modification of existing tax structure, or continuation of existing tax structure beyond approved period.
• It is introduced as part of the Annual Financial Statement (Budget) under Article 112.
• The Finance Bill is accompanied by a Memorandum explaining its provisions.
• It can only be introduced in Lok Sabha, while Rajya Sabha can only recommend amendments.
• The bill must be passed by Parliament within 75 days of introduction.
• No joint sitting of the two houses is allowed for a finance bill.

Money Bill

Definition of Money Bill:

• Defined in Article 110 of The Constitution of India.
• A money bill is a type of bill that only deals with taxation or government spending.
• It does not involve changes in public law.
• Speaker certifies if financial bill is a Money Bill.
• Money bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha (lower House)
• Common in the Westminster system and the United States.
• Also known as an appropriation of money bill.

Passage of Money Bills:

• Money bills passed by Lok Sabha are sent to Rajya Sabha (upper house).
• Rajya Sabha can recommend amendments but not amend money bills.
• Speaker certifies bill as money bill to prevent amendments by Rajya Sabha.
• Money bill must be returned to Lok Sabha within 14 days.

Amendments to Money Bills:

• Lok Sabha can accept or reject recommended amendments by Rajya Sabha.
• Accepted amendments are deemed to have passed both houses.

President's Role in Money Bills:

• Money bill can only be introduced with President's permission.
• Finance bill must be enacted within 75 days.
• President cannot return money bill to parliament for reconsideration.

77. Scheduled Areas

With reference to 'Scheduled Areas' in India, consider the following statements:
1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three 
(d) None

Answer: B

Explanation: Scheduled Areas

Statement 1 is correct: Definition of Scheduled Areas in the Indian Constitution

• Article 244(1) of the Fifth Schedule of India's Constitution defines "Scheduled Areas" as areas that the President can declare after consulting the State's Governor.
• Scheduled Areas are specific areas in India that are identified as needing special attention due to the social and economic backwardness of their residents, who are often tribal communities. 
• The President of India can notify an area as a Scheduled Area based on recommendations from the Governor of the State or from the Tribal Advisory Councils.

Statement 2 is correct: Administrative units in Scheduled Areas

• In a Scheduled Area, the administrative structure typically starts from the District level, where there might be a District Council or other administrative bodies representing tribal interests. 
• Below the District level, there are Blocks or Taluks, and within these Blocks, there are clusters of villages. 
• These administrative units are designed to ensure effective governance and representation of tribal communities.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Governor's responsibility in Scheduled Areas

• The Fifth Schedule, para 3, mandates the Governor of each State with Scheduled Areas to submit an annual report to the President about their administration.
• The governor of the state does not have a special responsibility regarding scheduled areas. Instead, the responsibility lies with the President, who may require the governor to submit a report on the administration of such areas annually or whenever necessary.
• The Governor's Report must be submitted annually for the following states: Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Jharkhand, Himachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan, and Telangana.

78. Reservation Policies

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of the administration.
Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term 'efficiency of administration'.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statements-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: C

Explanation

• Statement I is correct: Reservation contradicts efficiency and merit, it is a view supported by some Supreme Court judgments. The Supreme Court, in certain cases, interpreted Article 335 to suggest that the "efficiency of administration" clause limits reservation under Article 16(4).
• Statement II is incorrect: Article 335 of the Constitution of India does not define the term 'efficiency of administration.' Instead, it lays down a guideline that the claims of Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in matters of promotion should be balanced with the maintenance of efficiency of administration.
• Scope of Elimination: Constitution defines something, such statements are mostly wrong. Eliminate statement II, and you’ll arrive at the answer.

Article 16(4)

• Equality of Opportunity in Employment:
  
  • All citizens have equal opportunity for employment or appointment to any office under the State.
  • No discrimination based on religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, or residence.
• Parliament's Authority: Parliament can make laws regarding residence requirements for certain classes of employment or appointment.
• Reservation for Backward Classes: The State can reserve appointments or posts for backward classes not adequately represented in the services.
• Religious Institutions: Laws regarding religious or denominational institutions can require incumbents to profess a particular religion or belong to a specific denomination.

Article 335

• Article 16(4) allows the State to reserve government sector posts or jobs for backward classes that are underrepresented in the services.
• The Supreme Court has consistently considered "efficiency" and "merit" when evaluating reservation policies.
• The Court has ruled that reservation policies under Article 16(4) must be limited by Article 335, which emphasizes the maintenance of efficiency of administration.
• The Constitution does not provide a specific definition for "efficiency of administration."
• Article 335 states that the claims of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes should be considered while maintaining efficiency of administration in appointments to services and posts.

79. Home Guards

With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: 
1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards act and Rules of the Central Government.
2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.
3. To prevent infiltration on the international border /coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.
How Many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one 
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: B

Home Guards

Statement 1 is incorrect: 

• Home Guards were first established in India in December 1946 as a voluntary force to assist the police in controlling civil disturbance and communal riots.
• Home Guards are established according to the Home Guards Act and Rules of the States/Union Territories, recruiting individuals from diverse backgrounds who volunteer their spare time for community improvement.
• The concept of a voluntary citizen's force was adopted by several states, and in 1962, the central government advised states and union territories to merge their existing voluntary organizations into one uniform force known as Home Guards.
• The central government does not directly raise Home Guards, as they are raised by state governments under state acts.

Statement 2 is correct: 

• The role of Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintaining internal security situations.
• Home Guards also help the community in emergencies such as air raids, fires, cyclones, earthquakes, and epidemics.
• Home Guards serve as an auxiliary force to the police, aiding in maintaining internal security.
• They assist in maintaining essential services, promoting communal harmony, protecting weaker sections of society, participating in socio-economic and welfare activities, and performing civil defense duties.

Statement 3 is correct: 

• While it's true that some states have raised Border Wing Home Guards Battalions to help prevent infiltration on international borders or coastal areas, this is not a universal practice across all states.
• Fifteen Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in border states to serve as an auxiliary to the Border Security Force in preventing infiltration and guarding vulnerable areas during external aggression.

80. Acts

With reference to India, Consider the following pairs: 
Action             The Act under Which it is covered.
1. Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms: The Official Secrets Act, 1923
2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties: The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others: The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: B

Explanation

Pair 1 (Correctly Matched):

• Section 6 of the Official Secrets Act, 1923 prohibits unauthorized use of official uniforms or falsely representing oneself as entitled to wear such uniforms.
• Covers naval, military, air force, police, or similar official uniforms.

Pair 2 (Incorrectly Matched):

• Section 7 of the Official Secrets Act, 1923, deals with offenses related to prohibited places, not interference with police or armed forces guarding those places.
• No obstruction or interference with officers or armed forces engaged in guarding duties near prohibited areas.

Pair 3 (Correctly Matched):

• The Arms Act Amendment of 2019 introduces new offenses related to firearms, including forcefully taking firearms from police or armed forces and endangering lives with celebratory gunfire.
• Addresses misuse of firearms and actions that endanger human life or safety.

Official Secrets Act, 1923

• Official Secrets Act of 1923 is an anti-espionage law dating back to the British colonial era.
• Prohibits actions that aid an enemy state against India.
• Forbids access to restricted government sites or areas, such as electrical substations.
• Prohibits sharing official secrets, codes, or passwords with the enemy.

Indian Evidence Act, 1872

• The Indian Evidence Act was originally passed in 1872 by the Imperial Legislative Council during the British Raj.
• In February 2024, it was replaced by the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam.
• The Indian Evidence Act introduced a standard set of rules governing admissibility of evidence in Indian courts, replacing traditional systems based on social groups.
• Sir James Fitzjames Stephen is considered the founding father of the Indian Evidence Act, as he played a key role in its development.

Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2024

• The three new criminal laws, the Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita, the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, and the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, will be implemented on July 1, 2024. 
• The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, which replaces the Indian Evidence Act, has seen minor changes, including an expansion of secondary evidence and updates to provisions on electronic evidence.

Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019

• The Arms (Prohibited Firearms, Magazines, and Parts) Amendment Act 2019 bans semi-automatic firearms, large capacity magazines, and parts that can be used to assemble prohibited firearms.
• The Act was introduced by Labour Cabinet Minister Stuart Nash in response to the Christchurch mosque shootings.
• The Bill passed its third and final reading on 10 April 2019 and received royal assent the following day.
• The Arms Amendment Bill had support from all parties in Parliament except the ACT Party.

81. Constitution Day 

Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day:
Statement-I The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
Statement-II On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India. 
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect 
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India celebrates Constitution Day on 26th November each year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India in 1949.
Statement 2 is incorrect: On 26th November 1949, the Constitution was adopted. The Drafting Committee was established on August 29, 1947.
Scope of Elimination: Dates are generally wrong.

Constitution Day

• Constitution Day, also known as 'Samvidhan Divas', is celebrated on 26th November every year in India to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution.
• The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment announced on 19th November 2015 that the 26th day of November would be celebrated as Constitution Day to promote constitutional values among citizens.

Drafting Committee

• The Drafting Committee, established on August 29, 1947, was the most important committee among all the committees of the Constituent Assembly.
• The Drafting Committee was responsible for preparing a draft of the new Constitution.
• The Drafting Committee included Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as Chairman and six other members.

82. Prisons in India

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day to day administration of prisons.
Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement I is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: A

Explanation

• Statement 1 is correct: Prisons in India are indeed managed by State Governments, and each state has its own set of rules and regulations for the administration of prisons.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Prisons Act 1894 kept prisons under the control of provincial governments (State governments).
• Possible dispute: The Government of India Act, 1935 transferred the control of jails from the Central List to the Provincial Governments. It means, that the original Prisons Act, 1894 had not expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.

Prisons in India

• Prisons in India are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894.
• The Government of India Act, 1935 transferred the control of jails from the Central List to the Provincial Governments.
• The management and administration of prisons is exclusively under the control of the State Governments.
• The Prisons Act, 1894 and the Prison Manuals of the respective State Governments govern the management and administration of prisons.
• The Ministry of Home Affairs provides guidance and advice to States and Union Territories on prison-related issues.
• Option (a) is the correct answer.

83. To do Legal Provisions 

Consider the following statements:
1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: A

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution empowers the Central Government to protect States from internal disturbances under Article 355. 
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does not exempt the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Section 32(1) of Prevention of Terrorism Act (POTA) 2002 allows confessions made to a police officer of a certain rank to be admissible in trials.

Duty of the Union to protect states

• According to Article 355 of the Indian Constitution, the Union has the responsibility to safeguard every state against external aggression and internal disturbances.
• The Union also ensures that the government of each state operates in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.

Legal options for questioning detention

• Article 22 (5) of the Indian Constitution provides legal provisions for individuals detained under preventive detention laws.
• The authority making the detention order must promptly communicate the grounds for the order to the detained person.
• The detained person is also given the earliest opportunity to make a representation against the order, allowing them to question the detention.

The Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002

• The Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002 was enacted by the Indian Parliament in 2002 to enhance anti-terrorism operations.
• However, the Act was repealed in 2004, meaning it is no longer in effect.
• The Act allowed confessions made by a person before a police officer of a certain rank to be admissible as evidence in the trial for offenses under the Act.

84. National Flag of India 

Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002: 
Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm.
Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect 
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: D

National Flag of India

• Indian National Flag guidelines are governed by the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971 and the Flag Code of India, 2002.
• The Flag Code of India specifies nine standard dimensions for the tricolour flag.
• The dimensions allowed for the National Flag are 6300 x 4200, 3600 x 2400, 2700 x 1800, 1800 x 1200, 1350 x 900, 900 x 600, 450 x 300, 225 x 150, and 150 x 100 (all sizes in mm).
• The National Flag cannot be in the dimension of 600mm x 400mm.
• The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag should be 3:2.
• Option (d) is the correct answer.

Social Issues/Schemes UPSC Prelims 2023 Questions with Solutions

85. Janani Suraksha Yojana: 

Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: 
1. It is safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. 
2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. 
3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. 
4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. 
How many of the statements given above are correct? 
(a) Only one 
(b) Only two 
(c) Only three 
(d) All four

Answer: B

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a centrally sponsored scheme under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM), not a state-specific intervention.
• Statement 2 is correct: One of the main objectives of JSY is indeed to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality rates, particularly among economically disadvantaged pregnant women.
• Statement 3 is correct: JSY encourages pregnant women to opt for institutional delivery (delivery in a healthcare facility) instead of home deliveries, especially among those who are economically disadvantaged.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: While JSY focuses on maternal and neonatal health, it does not specifically cover providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. That aspect falls under the Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakaram scheme, not JSY.
• Possible disputes in Statement 4: In 2014, the programme was extended to all antenatal and post-natal complications of all sick newborns and infants (up to one year of age) accessing public health institutions for treatment.

Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY)

• Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a program for pregnant women and new mothers in India.
• It was launched in 2005 as an initiative of the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM).
• The scheme is sponsored by the Central Government of India and is implemented in all states and union territories.
• Special attention is given to low performing states.
• Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHA) work closely with the JSY scheme to assist poor pregnant women in low performing states.
• The aim of the scheme is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality by providing affordable and accessible institutional delivery services.
• Cash assistance is provided for delivery and post-delivery care under the supervision of the Ministry of Health and Family.
• The Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakaram scheme provides free treatment benefits for pregnant women and infants at public health institutions, including zero expenses delivery.

86.  Anaemia Mukt Bharat 

Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: 
1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents, and pregnant women. 
2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. 
3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. 
4. It addresses non nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. 
How many of the statements given above are correct? 
(a) Only one 
(b) Only two 
(c) Only three 
(d) All four

Answer: C

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Anaemia Mukt Bharat is for Iron, and not for calcium. The initiative focuses on Prophylactic Iron and Folic Acid supplementation, not Prophylactic Calcium Supplementation. 
• Statement 2 is correct: The strategy indeed includes promoting the practice of delayed cord clamping, which is mentioned as one of the behavior change communication activities. 
• Statement 3 is correct: It integrates deworming not only for children and adolescents but also for women of reproductive age and pregnant women. This aligns with the National Deworming Day (NDD) programme. 
• Statement 4 is correct: Addressing Non-Nutritional Causes of Anaemia: The strategy does aim to integrate screening and treatment for non-nutritional causes of anaemia, including malaria, haemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis. This is mentioned as part of the strategy to intensify awareness and integrate screening and treatment.

Anaemia Mukt Bharat

• Anaemia Mukt Bharat is a public health scheme launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and UNICEF.
• The scheme aims to reduce anaemia in vulnerable sections of society, including women and children.
• It was first launched as National Nutritional Anaemia Prophylaxis Programme (NNAPP) in 1970 and relaunched in 2018 as part of the POSHAN Abhiyan.
• The scheme follows a 6X6X6 strategy, including six target beneficiaries, six interventions, and six institutional mechanisms.
• One key intervention is providing Prophylactic Iron and Folic Acid supplementation to children, adolescents, women of reproductive age, and pregnant women.
• Behaviour changes communication activities of the strategy promote the practice of delayed cord clamping and early initiation of breastfeeding.
• Bi-annual mass deworming is carried out for children between 1-19 years on designated dates, and the Anaemia Mukt Bharat integrates deworming for women of reproductive age and pregnant women.
• The strategy also focuses on screening and treatment for non-nutritional causes of anaemia, such as malaria, haemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis.

87. India's public sector health care system 

Consider the following statements :
Statement-I: India's public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.
Statement-II: Under India's decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: B

Explanation

• Statement I is correct: The National Health Policy, 2017, which emphasizes a comprehensive approach to health care, includes preventive, promotive, curative, palliative, and rehabilitative services.
• Statement II is also correct: India follows a decentralized approach to health care delivery, with states primarily responsible for organizing health services. Public health is a subject under the State list of the 7th Schedule.
• However, Statement II not directly related to the focus of curative care mentioned in Statement-I, so it doesn't explain or support Statement-I directly.

National Health Accounts Estimates for India (2019-20)

Breakdown of current health expenditure:

• Inpatient Curative Care: Rs. 2,01,558 crores (33.94% of CHE)
• Outpatient Curative Care: Rs. 1,14,548 crores (19.29% of CHE)
• Day Curative Care: Rs. 2,915 crores (0.49% of CHE)
• Patient Transportation: Rs. 20,879 crores (3.52% of CHE)
• Laboratory and Imaging services: Rs. 23,983 crores (4.04% of CHE)
• Prescribed Medicines: Rs. 1,09,835 crores (18.50% of CHE)
• Over the Counter (OTC) Medicines: Rs. 20,581 crores (3.47% of CHE)
• Therapeutic Appliances and Medical Goods: Rs. 725 crores (0.12% of CHE)
• Preventive Care: Rs. 60,250 crores (10.16% of CHE)
• Others: Rs. 12,895 crores (2.17% of CHE)
• Governance and Health System and Financing Administration: Rs. 25,490 crores (4.30% of CHE)

Economy UPSC Prelims 2023 Questions with Solutions

88. Sterilization

Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of 'sterilization'?
(a) Conducting 'Open Market Operations'
(b) Oversight of settlement and payment systems
(c) Debt and cash management for the Central and State Governments 
(d) Regulating the functions of Nonbanking Financial Institutions

Answer: A

Sterilization

• Sterilization: It is the procedure of destroying all microorganisms in or on a given environment, such as a surgical instrument, in order to prevent the spread of infection.
• Sterilization in economy: Sterilization is action taken by a central bank to counter the effects on the money supply caused by a balance of payments surplus or deficit. This can involve open market operations undertaken by the central bank whose aim is to neutralize the impact of associated foreign exchange operations.
• The opposite is unsterilized intervention, where monetary authorities have not insulated their country's domestic money supply and internal balance against foreign exchange intervention.
• Central banks use sterilization to mitigate the risks of currency appreciation or inflation, or to "defend" the value of their currency. 
• Sterilization involves reducing the domestic component of the monetary base to offset reserve inflow.
• Various methods can be used for sterilization, including promoting foreign investment or allowing foreigners to borrow from the local market.
• The traditional approach to sterilization is through open market operations, such as selling Treasury bills, to decrease the domestic monetary base.

Open Market Operations (OMO)

Meaning:

• OMO is a central bank activity to manage liquidity in its currency with banks.
• Involves buying/selling government bonds or entering repo transactions with commercial banks.

Monetary Policy Tool:

• Central banks use OMOs to implement monetary policy.
• Aim is to influence short-term interest rates.

Evolution Post-Financial Crisis:

• OMOs less prominent after the financial crisis.
• Shift towards floor systems reduced the need for frequent OMOs.

Floor Systems: 

• Many central banks have changed their monetary policy implementation to a floor system (or system of ample reserves), in which there is abundant liquidity in the payments system. 
• In this situation central banks no longer need to fine tune the supply of reserves to meet demand, implying that they may conduct OMOs less frequently.

Exchange Rate Anchors:

• Direct intervention in forex market is a specific type of OMO.
• Used to maintain desired exchange rates.

Quantitative Easing (QE):

• Post-crisis, major central banks employ QE programs.
• Similar to OMO but involves pre-committed large-volume purchases of securities.
• QE are similar open-market operations, but entail a pre-commitment of the central bank to conduct purchases to a predefined large volume and for a predefined period of time. 
• Under QE, central banks typically purchase riskier and longer-term securities, e.g. long maturity sovereign bonds and corporate bonds.

Payment and Settlement Systems 

These are used for financial transactions in India. 

Regulation:

• Regulated by the Payment and Settlement Systems Act of 2007.
• Oversight by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Board for Regulation and Supervision of Payment and Settlement Systems.

Variety of Systems:

• Multiple payment and settlement systems in India.
• Includes RTGS, ECS Credit/Debit, credit/debit cards, NEFT, Immediate Payment Service, and UPI.
• India has multiple payments and settlement systems, both gross and net settlement systems. 
• For gross settlement systems, India has a Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) System. 
• Net settlement systems include the Electronic Clearing Services (ECS Credit), Electronic Clearing Services (ECS Debit), credit cards, debit cards, the National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT) system, Immediate Payment Service, and Unified Payments Interface (UPI).

RBI Initiatives:

• The RBI has made RTGS compulsory for high-value transactions. 
• Introduction of NEFT and NECS (National Electronic Clearing Services) to promote electronic transactions.

Digital Adoption:

• Growing internet availability and biometric IDs facilitate electronic transactions.
• Above 90 crore internet users in India as of 2023.
• Cash Usage: Despite digital growth, 63% of payments still made in cash.

Nonbanking Financial Institutions (NBFI) or Non-Bank Financial Company (NBFC) 

• It is a financial institution that is not legally a bank. It does not have a full banking license or is not supervised by a national or international banking regulatory agency. 
• Services: NBFC facilitate bank-related financial services, such as investment, risk pooling, contractual savings, and market brokering. E.g. hedge funds, insurance firms, pawn shops, cashier's check issuers, check cashing locations, payday lending, currency exchanges, and microloan organizations.
• Economic Role: Strengthen economy by offering alternatives to transform savings into capital investment, serving as backup facilities if primary intermediation fails.
• Regulation: Operations not covered under a country's banking regulations.

89. Capital markets

Consider the following markets:
1. Government Bond Market
2. Call Money Market
3. Treasury Bill Market
4. Stock Market
How many of the above are included in capital markets?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer: B

Explanation:

• The money market deals with short-term debt and lending, typically for one year or less. In contrast, the capital market involves trading long-term assets like stocks and bonds.
• Only two of the given options (Government Bond Market, and Stock Market) are included in the capital markets. The Call Money Market and Treasury Bill Market are part of the money market.

Capital Market:

• Definition:  Financial market for long-term debt (over a year) or equity-backed securities. It contrasts with money markets focused on short-term debt.
• Includes government bonds, which are long-term investment tools issued by the Central and State governments of India.
• Also encompasses the stock market and other venues for trading various financial products.
• It diverts savers' wealth to long-term investments.
• Regulated by authorities like SEBI, Bank of England (BoE) and the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) to protect investors.
• Transaction Management: Transactions are generally managed by entities within the financial sector or the treasury departments of governments and corporations, but some can be accessed directly by the public. 

Capital Market vs. Money Market

 

Bond Market (debt market) 

• Bond market involves issuing new debt (primary market) and trading debt securities (secondary market).
• This is usually in the form of bonds. It may include notes, bills, and so on for public and private expenditures.
• Market Size: Estimated at $119 trillion worldwide; the U.S. market accounts for $46 trillion.
• Trading: Mostly decentralized over-the-counter (OTC), but some bonds are listed on exchanges.

Credit Market: 

• Bonds and bank loans together form the credit market; global credit market is about three times the size of the global equity market.
• Bank loans are not securities under the Securities and Exchange Act, but bonds typically are and are therefore more highly regulated. 
• Bonds are typically not secured by collateral, and are sold in relatively small denominations.
• Unlike bank loans, bonds may be held by retail investors. 
• Bonds are more frequently traded than loans, although not as often as equity.

Government Bond Market:

• Government bond market is crucial for size and liquidity, used to measure credit risk and indicate changes in interest rates.
• In India, government bonds are known as government securities (G-Sec).
• Investment Tools: Long-term investment tools with durations of 5 to 40 years.
• Issuers: Can be issued by both Central and State governments of India.

Credit risk: 

• Because of the inverse relationship between bond valuation and interest rates (or yields), the bond market is often used to indicate changes in interest rates or the shape of the yield curve, the measure of "cost of funding". 
• The yield on government bonds in low risk countries such as the United States and Germany indicates a risk-free rate of default. 
• The primary way to default is to not pay in full or not pay on time.

Call Money

• Meaning: Minimum short-term loan repayable on demand, with a maturity of one to fourteen days or overnight to a fortnight.
• The money that is lent for one day in this market is known as "call money" and, if it exceeds one day, is referred to as "notice money."
• Usage: Mainly for inter-bank transactions, helping banks maintain the cash reserve ratio. Call money is a method by which banks lend to each other to maintain the CRR.
• The call money market is an important component of the Indian Money Market, where surplus funds (mostly from banks) are traded daily.

Call Rate: 

• Interest rate paid on call money is known as the call rate. It is a highly volatile rate that varies from day to day and sometimes even from hour to hour. 
• There is an inverse relationship between call rates and other short-term money market instruments such as certificates of deposit and commercial paper.
• A rise in call money rates makes other sources of finance (such as commercial paper and certificates of deposit) cheaper for banks.

Margin accounts:

• Refers to short-term financing by banks to brokers for maintaining margin accounts; riskier than fixed-term loans, helps meet liquidity needs.
• In the international market, the term call money usually refers to the short-term financing by banking institutions to brokers for maintaining the margin account. 
• It is different from the term "loan" as the schedule for the payment of interest and principal is not fixed. 
• Since the loan can be called at any time, it is riskier than other forms of loans. It helps in meeting liquidity needs at short notice.

Treasury Bill Market

• Refers to a wide range of tradeable assets, including the stock market and other platforms for trading financial products.
• Treasury bills, issued by the Government of India, are considered money market instruments.

Stock Market (Equity Market or Share Market)

• Stock market is where buyers and sellers trade stocks representing ownership in businesses.
• Stocks can be traded on public exchanges or privately through platforms like equity crowdfunding.
• Investors typically have an investment strategy when making investments in the stock market.

90. Fifteenth Finance Commission

Commission Consider the following:
1. Demographic performance
2. Forest and ecology
3. Governance reforms
4. Stable government
5. Tax and fiscal efforts 
For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five

Answer: B

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: Demographic performance is assessed based on factors like population growth, composition, and changes over time using 2011 population data. States with lower fertility rates get higher scores. The 15th Finance Commission recommended 12.5% weightage for this criterion.
• Statement 2 is correct: Forest and ecology assessment considers forest preservation, biodiversity, and ecological balance. It's calculated by comparing dense forest proportions across states. The Commission suggested 10% weightage for this.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Governance reforms aim to improve government efficiency and transparency but weren't part of the criteria for tax devolution by the 15th Finance Commission.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: Stable government, while important for political stability, wasn't explicitly included as a criterion for tax devolution by the 15th Finance Commission.
• Statement 5 is correct: Tax and fiscal efforts assess a state's tax collection and fiscal management efficiency. It's determined by the ratio of per capita tax revenue to per capita state GDP from 2016-17 to 2018-19. The Commission recommended 2.5% weightage for this criterion.

Fifteenth Finance Commission: Horizontal tax devolution

Overall devolution formula: (Criteria and Weight)

• Population: 15.0%
• Area: 15.0%
• Forest & ecology: 10%
• Income distance: 45%
• Tax & fiscal efforts: 2.5%
• Demographic performance: 12.5%

Horizontal devolution:

• Census 2011 population data: XVFC agreed that it better represents the present need of States.
• Demographic performance criterion: XVFC assigned a 12.5% weight to reward States that have performed well on the demographic front.
• Tax effort criterion: XVFC reintroduced this criterion to reward fiscal performance.

91. UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative 

Consider the following infrastructure sectors:
1. Affordable housing
2. Mass rapid transport
3. Health care
4. Renewable energy
On how many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer: C

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct (Affordable Housing): UNOPS' S3i initiative prioritize affordable housing by providing significant support for initiatives targeting middle-income and lower-middle-income groups, focusing on large-scale implementation.
• Statement 2 is incorrect (Mass Rapid Transport): Mass Rapid Transport is not included in the UNOPS S3i initiative.
• Statement 3 is correct (Healthcare): UNOPS S3i initiative prioritizes healthcare infrastructure projects to enhance the quality of healthcare in specified countries, including support for primary care clinics, hospitals, diagnostic centers, laboratories, and the implementation of healthcare technologies.
• Statement 4 is correct (Renewable Energy): UNOPS S3i initiative prioritizes renewable energy infrastructure projects, including investment in renewable energy sources such as solar, hydro, wind, biomass, and hydrogen, along with distribution, storage infrastructure, and innovative technologies throughout the renewable energy value chain.

Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i)

• Establishment of Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) as a stand-alone business unit in UNOPS governance structure.
• UNOPS becomes the first United Nations organization to make direct investments from its own balance sheet.
• S3i office aims to enhance and accelerate engagement of public and private sector investors in scaling up infrastructure investments.
• S3i office will explore co-creating innovative financing options.
• S3i initiative focuses on affordable housing, renewable energy, and health infrastructure.
• Option (c) is the correct answer.

United Nations Office for Project Services (UNOPS) 

Department of Economic and Social Affairs.

• UNOPS is a UN agency that implements infrastructure and procurement projects globally
• Headquarters located in Copenhagen, Denmark
• Disburses over $3 billion worth of projects and contracts annually
• Activities include managing construction projects, building shelters, and procuring resources for emergencies
• Member of the United Nations Sustainable Development Group and works closely with UNDP, DPO, and World Bank
• Faced scandal in 2022 leading to resignation of leaders due to financial malfeasance and poor stewardship of funds

92. Production-linked Incentive scheme

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods.
Statement-II: Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India's 'Production-linked Incentive' scheme.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect 
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: D

Global merchandise trade

Statement I is incorrect: 

• India's share in global merchandise trade is only 1.8% and 4% in global services. India plans to increase its export share in global trade from 2.1% to 3% by 2027 and 10% by 2047.
• India's current share in global merchandise trade is 1.8% and 4% in global services.
• India aims to increase its export share in global trade from 2.1% to 3% by 2027.
• India has a long-term goal of reaching a 10% share in global trade by 2047.

Production-linked Incentive scheme

Statement II is correct:

• The PLI scheme is open to both domestic and international manufacturers. Samsung as well as Indian firms such as Dixon Technologies, UTL, Neolyncs, Lava International, Optiemus Electronics, and Micromax are also expanding their factories to take advantage of the PLI scheme.
• The PLI scheme is available for both domestic and international manufacturers.
• Samsung, along with Indian companies like Dixon Technologies, UTL, Neolyncs, Lava International, Optiemus Electronics, and Micromax, are expanding their factories to benefit from the PLI scheme.
• The PLI scheme is attracting both global and domestic manufacturers to invest and expand their operations in India.

93. MSMEs

Consider the following statements with reference to India:
1. According to the 'Micro Small and Medium enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006, the 'medium enterprises' are those with investments in plant and machinery between Rs. 15 crore and Rs. 25 crore.
2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the Priority sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 Only 
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: 

• Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (M/o MSMEs) issued Gazette notification for revised definition and criteria of MSMEs. New definition and criteria to be implemented from July 2020. 
• Medium enterprise defined as investment in Plant and Machinery or Equipment not exceeding 50 crore rupees and turnover not exceeding 250 crore rupees.

Statement 2 is incorrect: 

• Bank loans to MSMEs may qualify under the priority sector, but not all such loans automatically qualify. 
• Specific criteria, such as the size of the loan and the nature of the enterprise, determine whether a loan falls under the priority sector or not.

94. Beta in Finance

In the context of finance, the term 'beta' refers to
(a) the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from difference platforms.
(b) an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward.
(c) a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible.
(d) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market.

Answer: D

Beta in Finance

• Definition of Beta (β): Beta is a measure of the volatility or systematic risk of a security or portfolio compared to the overall market.
• High Beta Stocks: Equities with a beta value larger than one are known as high beta stocks, indicating that they are more volatile and sensitive to changes in stock market indicators.
• Influence of Market Indicators: Even slight adjustments in stock market indicators can have a significant impact on high beta stocks.
• Low Beta Stocks: On the other hand, low beta stocks are relatively more stable and have a beta rating below 1.

95. Self-Help Group (SHG) 

Consider the following statements:
1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived.
2. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.
3. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial banks support SHGs.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: B

Explanation

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The SHG movement gained momentum due to NABARD's efforts, not the State Bank of India.
• Statement 2 is correct: In an SHG, collective responsibility is a key feature. When a member takes a loan, the entire group is collectively responsible for repaying it. This approach helps build trust and ensures repayment.
• Statement 3 is correct: Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) play a crucial role in supporting SHGs by providing financial services and enabling features like Dual Authentication in microATMs for SHG transactions. This support helps SHGs access credits and operate effectively.

Self-Help Group (SHG)

Origin of Self-Help Groups (SHGs):

• Traced back to Grameen Bank of Bangladesh, founded by Mohamed Yunus.
• Started and formed in 1975.
• NABARD initiated SHGs in India in 1986-1987.
• Absence of institutional credits in rural areas led to the establishment of SHGs.
• SHGs organize rural poor to meet their productive and consumption needs through savings.

Credit process within SHGs:

• Cash credit facility sanctioned by the bank to SHG.
• Credit by SHG to individual members guided by their own terms and duration.
• Ensures financial discipline at the member level.
• Some members may require larger loans for economic activities, leading to the creation of smaller Joint Liability Groups (JLGs).

Role of RRBs in SHG financing:

• RRBs are key financing institutions at the rural level.
• Responsible for fulfilling credit requirements of SHGs.
• Also serve as Self Help Promotional Institutions (SHPIs).
• Government encourages scheduled commercial banks to meet entire credit requirements of SHG members.

Importance of SHG-Bank linkage:

• Emphasized in Monetary Policy Statements of Reserve Bank of India and Union Budget announcements.
• Guidelines issued to banks for linking SHGs with banks.

96. Central Bank digital currencies 

With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements:
1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system.
2. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a time-fame for spending it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 Only 
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

• Statement 1 is correct: CBDCs facilitate direct digital payments without relying on traditional international payment systems like the US dollar or SWIFT.
• Statement 2 is correct: CBDCs can be programmed with conditions such as expiration dates, ensuring that the digital currency is used within a specified time-frame.    

Central Bank digital currencies

• Alternatives to SWIFT and the U.S. dollar are emerging in the form of cryptocurrencies and central bank digital currencies (CBDC).
• Direct bilateral exchange of digital currencies between countries will bypass the need for SWIFT or similar settlement systems.
• Seamless and instantaneous convertibility between sovereign currencies reduces the necessity for a dominant global reserve currency.
• CBDC can be used for fiscal transfers to households or firms, making relief or stimulus payments more efficient.
• Widespread adoption of CBDC accounts would make helicopter drops or subsidies easier to implement.
• Transfer payments through CBDC can be programmable, with conditions such as expiration dates or requirements to spend funds at specific vendors.

97. Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) 

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.
Statement-II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the 'Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002'.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: D

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Dividend or interest income from an InvIT is taxable based on the individual's Income Tax Slab rate.
• Statement 2 is correct: The SARFAESI Act recognizes InvITs as borrowers. InvITs being recognized as borrowers under this act means they have legal standing and obligations similar to borrowers in financial transactions.

Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs)

Statement I: Taxation regime for Real Estate Investment Trust (REIT) and Infrastructure Investment Trust (InVIT)

• The Finance (No.2) Act, 2014 introduced a special taxation regime for REIT and InVIT.
• REITs and InVITs provide two types of returns to investors: Dividend Income and Capital Gains.
• Dividend or interest income from an InvIT is taxable based on the individual's Income Tax Slab rate.
• This income must be declared annually in the Income Tax Return under the head "Income from Other Sources."

Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002

Statement II: Definition of "borrower" under the Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002

• According to the Act, a "borrower" refers to any person who has received financial assistance from a bank or financial institution.
• It also includes pooled investment vehicles defined in the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956.
• The definition encompasses individuals who have provided guarantees or created mortgages or pledges as security for the financial assistance.
• It also includes persons or pooled investment vehicles who become borrowers of an asset reconstruction company after acquiring rights or interests from a bank or financial institution.

98. Global Monetary Policies

Correct the following statements:
Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes.
Statement-II: Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: A

Explanation

• Statement 1 is correct: Many central banks globally did indeed raise interest rates in response to various economic conditions post-pandemic.
• Statement 2 is correct: Central banks, through their monetary policy tools like interest rate adjustments, aim to influence borrowing, spending, and overall economic activity to manage inflationary pressures and maintain price stability.
• Scope of Elimination: Statement 1 (Many), Statement 2 (generally).

Global Monetary Policies

• World Bank study warns of global recession and financial crises.
• Central banks raising interest rates simultaneously.
• Synchronicity in interest rate hikes not seen in decades.
• Central banks' credibility important for price stability
• Monetary policy transmission mechanism has long and uncertain time lags.
• Difficult to predict exact effect of monetary policy on economy and prices.
• Central banks assume they can counter rising consumer prices with interest rate increases.
• Both statements are correct, with statement II explaining statement I.
• Option (a) is the correct answer.

Current Affairs UPSC Prelims 2023 Questions with Solutions

99.    Sports Awards: 

Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards: 
1. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award: For the most Spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over period of last four years
2. Arujna Award: For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson
3. Dronacharya Award: To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams
4. Rashtriya Khel Protshan Puraskar: To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement 
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer: B

Explanation: Sports Awards

• National Sports Awards are given annually to recognize and reward excellence in sports.
• Statement 1 is correct: Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award is given for outstanding performance over the previous four years. It is given to honor sportspersons who have contributed to sports through their performance and continue to promote sports events after retirement.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Arjuna Award is given for outstanding performance in sports for the last four years, not for lifetime achievement. It is given for good performance over the previous four years, as well as qualities of leadership, sportsmanship, and discipline.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Dronacharya Award is given to outstanding coaches for their contribution to sports.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: The Rashtriya Khel Protshan Puraskar is awarded to organizations and individuals who have played a significant role in promoting sports, but it is not specifically for sportspersons after retirement.

100. 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: 

Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: 
1. It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India.
2. The official mascot was named 'Thambi'.
3. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
4. The trophy for the winning team in the women's section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer: B

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India and the first in Asia after 30 years.
• Statement 2 is correct: The official mascot was named ‘Thambi,’ a chess knight dressed in traditional Tamil attire.
• Statement 3 and 4 are incorrect: Pairs are reversed in the statements. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup, and in the women's section is the Vera Menchik Cup.

44th Chess Olympiad

• Prime Minister declares the 44th Chess Olympiad at JLN Indoor Stadium, Chennai.
• The competition is being hosted in India for the first time and in Asia after 30 years.
• Highest ever number of countries participating.
• Highest ever number of teams participating.
• Highest number of entries in the women's section.
• First ever Torch Relay of the Chess Olympiad.
• Official mascot named "Thambi".
• Winner in the Open section: Hamilton-Russel Cup.
• Winner in the Women's section: Vera Menchik Cup.
• 1st place in combined classification: Nona Gaprindashvili Trophy.
• Number of teams: Open: 188 Women: 162.

 

This article is written in 2 parts. Click here for part 1 of the Prelims 2023 questions.